$$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{x}{x+\sin(x)}$$

This is of the indeterminate form of type $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$, so we can apply l’Hopital’s rule:

$$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{x}{x+\sin(x)}=\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{(x)’}{(x+\sin(x))’}=\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{1}{1+\cos(x)}$$

This limit doesn’t exist, but the initial limit clearly approaches $1$. Where am I wrong?

**Answer**

Your only error — and it’s a common one — is in a subtle misreading of L’Hopital’s rule. What the rule says is that **IF** the limit of $f’$ over $g’$ **exists** then the limit of $f$ over $g$ also exists and the two limits are the same. It doesn’t say anything if the limit of $f’$ over $g’$ doesn’t exist.

**Attribution***Source : Link , Question Author : Andrew Fount , Answer Author : Joe*