# Does convergence in LpL^p imply convergence almost everywhere?

If I know $$‖\| f_n - f \|_{L^p(\mathbb{R})} \to 0$$ as $$n \to \inftyn \to \infty$$, do I know that $$\lim_{n \to \infty}f_n(x) = f(x)\lim_{n \to \infty}f_n(x) = f(x)$$ for almost every $$xx$$?

Let $\rho(x)=\chi_{[0,1]}$ be the characteristic function of the interval $[0,1]$. Then take the “dancing” sequence
where $n=2^m+k$ with $0\leq k<2^m$. This sequence converges to $0$ in $L^p$ but for any $x\in(0,1)$ we have $f_n(x)$ is not convergent.
However, it is a general fact that one can always extract a subsequence converging almost everywhere to $f$.